Originally Posted By: TomHunter
Explain how a significant portion of a lube flow can go through 1% or less of a media surface. I will accept math, citations to literature, just about anything other than your personal suppositions and uninformed impressions.
Fluid will take the least path of resistance. A gaping hole has much less resistance to flow compared to the media. Even if the tear is 1~2% of the total area, there will be more that 1~2% of the oil flow diverted through those holes. Bottom line is there should be no unfiltered oil getting past the media unless the bypass valve has to open for some reason.
Explain how a significant portion of a lube flow can go through 1% or less of a media surface. I will accept math, citations to literature, just about anything other than your personal suppositions and uninformed impressions.
Fluid will take the least path of resistance. A gaping hole has much less resistance to flow compared to the media. Even if the tear is 1~2% of the total area, there will be more that 1~2% of the oil flow diverted through those holes. Bottom line is there should be no unfiltered oil getting past the media unless the bypass valve has to open for some reason.
TomHunter said:Then explain how this could occur over thousands of miles with essentially no erosion of the hole in a media with the consistency of a wet paper towel. {/quote]
How do you know loose fibers aren't getting sloughed off the torn edges of the media by the oil flowing through the torn open holes? I highly doubt every loose fiber stays intact for 5,000+ miles of oil washing over the torn edges.