PP Euro for 2006 Civic in Cold Weather

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Originally Posted By: oil_film_movies
Originally Posted By: Quattro Pete
But will he actually notice it?

Who cares if somebody "notices" a 2%-3% leak in their wallet? Thats not the oil question here. The $$$ leak is still there. No "possibly" involved, as you claim.


Where is this 2%-3% coming from? Mobil's own numbers for their AFE oils is as follows:

Originally Posted By: ExxonMobil
*Savings would be based on 0.2-2.3 percent potential fuel economy improvement obtained by switching from higher viscosity oils to a 0W-20 or 0W-30 grade. Actual savings are dependent upon vehicle/engine type, outside temperature, driving conditions and your current engine oil viscosity.
 
Originally Posted By: oil_film_movies
Who cares if somebody "notices" a 2%-3% leak in their wallet? Thats not the oil question here. The $$$ leak is still there.

So do you or do you not care about the money here?

How does that compare to the money lost by not using the Euro oil which he already bought?

Say that with RC oil he gets 30 MPG, and he does 5K mile OCI.
If he really loses 2% in MPG by running Euro oil, that means he will get 29.4 MPG.
Over the course of 5K OCI that's 3.4 more gallons of fuel used.
At today's prices that's about $10.

How much is the OP going to have to spend on new oil if he is not going to use that Euro oil?
Can he sell the Euro oil and not lose more than $10 on the sale?
Is it worth his time and effort?

It's just not worth dissecting, IMO.
 
Originally Posted By: OVERKILL
Where is this 2%-3% coming from? Mobil's own numbers for their AFE oils is as follows:

Originally Posted By: ExxonMobil
*Savings would be based on 0.2-2.3 percent potential fuel economy improvement obtained by switching from higher viscosity oils to a 0W-20 or 0W-30 grade. Actual savings are dependent upon vehicle/engine type, outside temperature, driving conditions and your current engine oil viscosity.

And with the way that is written, the fuel savings they state could be coming from using 20W-50 (or higher) to the AFE product.
 
Originally Posted By: kschachn
Originally Posted By: OVERKILL
Where is this 2%-3% coming from? Mobil's own numbers for their AFE oils is as follows:

Originally Posted By: ExxonMobil
*Savings would be based on 0.2-2.3 percent potential fuel economy improvement obtained by switching from higher viscosity oils to a 0W-20 or 0W-30 grade. Actual savings are dependent upon vehicle/engine type, outside temperature, driving conditions and your current engine oil viscosity.

And with the way that is written, the fuel savings they state could be coming from using 20W-50 (or higher) to the AFE product.


Exactly.

My understanding from I think it was Ford's testing? Was that the gain was like 0.2% for them going to 5w-20, which seems insignificant, but when spread across the number of vehicles they sold, had a meaningful impact on CAFE.
 
Originally Posted By: oil_film_movies
Originally Posted By: Quattro Pete
But will he actually notice it?

Who cares if somebody "notices" a 2%-3% leak in their wallet? Thats not the oil question here. The $$$ leak is still there. No "possibly" involved, as you claim.

Is it not power loss due to engine oil drag miniscule in relation to vehicle air drag ?......
and hence miniscule $$$ differentials ?
 
Originally Posted By: OVERKILL
Where is this 2%-3% coming from? Mobil's own numbers for their AFE oils is as follows:
Originally Posted By: ExxonMobil
*Savings would be based on 0.2-2.3 percent potential fuel economy improvement obtained by switching from higher viscosity oils to a 0W-20 or 0W-30 grade. Actual savings are dependent upon vehicle/engine type, outside temperature, driving conditions and your current engine oil viscosity.


Mobil's numbers are for going up an ILSAC grade, not for going up +0.9 HTHS from a 0w20 to a C3 5w30.
Best look at Oil Fuel Economy Paper Link, Figure 14, where the effects of FM and visc are shown.
Many, many other field studies and engine test papers are very similar. This is very old knowledge. You can argue over a half percent either way if it makes you happy.
 
Originally Posted By: zeng
Originally Posted By: oil_film_movies
Originally Posted By: Quattro Pete
But will he actually notice it?

Who cares if somebody "notices" a 2%-3% leak in their wallet? Thats not the oil question here. The $$$ leak is still there. No "possibly" involved, as you claim.
Is it not power loss due to engine oil drag miniscule in relation to vehicle air drag ?......
and hence miniscule $$$ differentials ?
Yes, air drag is high as the vehicle goes faster. We have control over what oil goes in and we DON'T have any control over the air drag unless we modify the body of the car. Its easy to reach for low HTHS oil on the shelf for a couple of percent improvement.
 
Originally Posted By: oil_film_movies
Mobil's numbers are for going up an ILSAC grade, not for going up +0.9 HTHS from a 0w20 to a C3 5w30.

Where does ExxonMobil say that?
 
"It all makes perfect sense
Expressed in dollars and cents"

Except it actually doesn't.

(anyone else here that likes Roger Waters' "Amused to Death" album?)
 
Originally Posted By: kschachn
Originally Posted By: oil_film_movies
Mobil's numbers are for going up an ILSAC grade, not for going up +0.9 HTHS from a 0w20 to a C3 5w30.

Where does ExxonMobil say that?


They don't they say over "commonly used oils", and I'm sure I've seen a for eg. 10W30 somewhere, but won't stake a claim to that.

Originally Posted By: oil_film_movies

Best look at Oil Fuel Economy Paper Link, Figure 14, where the effects of FM and visc are shown.
Many, many other field studies and engine test papers are very similar. This is very old knowledge. You can argue over a half percent either way if it makes you happy.


Per the paper (your link), and your 0.9Cp Delta HTHS.

%FE = 3.82 - 1.214*HTHS
The difference in economy is 1.214*delta HTHS
=1.214* 0.9 = 1.1%.

Will use the GM Kinematic formula now. 8.3Cst (KV100) to 11.7Cst.
%FE = 2.752 - 0.267*KV100
0.267* (11.7-8.3) = 0.91%

Originally Posted By: Shannow
2-3% mileage and peak power...I call B$


Here's the limits of testing from another set of papers...Note 0W20 not 5W20 that the OP started with.


Absolute limits of variability (2.8%-2.0) to (4.0-1.5) = 0.8% to 2.5%...

Not 2-3%...
 
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