This one has always made me scratch my head. Maybe it's a dumb question, but.....I have always read that "synthetic oil is not more slippery" (usually in response to "bubba" the mechanic's claim that you should use synthetic oil during "break-in"). Then, in serious lubrication journals and papers, I will read "__________ will benefit from synthetic oil due in part to its lower coefficient of friction......"
So, Group III/IV/V base is not more slippery, but has an inherent lower CF? Someone help me understand the very layman's "slippery" compared to the more technical "coefficient of friction".
Thanks!
So, Group III/IV/V base is not more slippery, but has an inherent lower CF? Someone help me understand the very layman's "slippery" compared to the more technical "coefficient of friction".
Thanks!
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