Supposed if I run Sample A using Brookfield Vis method at -35 d.c and receive "X" cp result.
Will I receive back "X" mpa-s result if I run CCS at -35 d.c using Sample A?
I came up with this assumption because I saw a table showing that 1 cp is equivalent to 1 mpa-s.
For example, if an oil sample Brookfield Vis result @ -35 d.c is 8500cp which is = 8500 mpa-s according to the table. And since CCS uses mpa-s, does that mean that CCS @ -35d.c of the same sample will be 8500 mpa-s?
Additionally, I understand theoretically that Kinematic Viscosity (@ "Z" temperature) * Density (@ "Z" temperature) = Dynamic Viscosity (@ "Z" temperature). Does the Dynamic Viscosity (@ "Z" temperature) equal to Brookfield, CCS, cold temperature viscosity measurement?
If yes, it means that all cold temperature viscosity measurements in Dynamic Viscosity are the same, the only difference is the testing method?
Will I receive back "X" mpa-s result if I run CCS at -35 d.c using Sample A?
I came up with this assumption because I saw a table showing that 1 cp is equivalent to 1 mpa-s.
For example, if an oil sample Brookfield Vis result @ -35 d.c is 8500cp which is = 8500 mpa-s according to the table. And since CCS uses mpa-s, does that mean that CCS @ -35d.c of the same sample will be 8500 mpa-s?
Additionally, I understand theoretically that Kinematic Viscosity (@ "Z" temperature) * Density (@ "Z" temperature) = Dynamic Viscosity (@ "Z" temperature). Does the Dynamic Viscosity (@ "Z" temperature) equal to Brookfield, CCS, cold temperature viscosity measurement?
If yes, it means that all cold temperature viscosity measurements in Dynamic Viscosity are the same, the only difference is the testing method?