Originally Posted By: Kiwi_ME
Originally Posted By: OVERK1LL
OK, but then this is where we determine how pedantic we want to be here
1. In order to have RPM, we must have force (torque) and if any force is being applied and it causes movement, we are performing work, no matter how minute that amount of work is to create that RPM.
That's just silly, Overkill, science IS pedantic. RPM are just units of angular velocity, does not imply anything more!
I don't see how it is silly?
In the context of the internal combustion engine, is it possible to have RPM > 0 without force?
(I'm not trying to be a smart a$$ here)
I'm not arguing what the definition of RPM is. I'm saying that any RPM > 0 in the context of an IC engine implies work is being performed. Because in order to have crankshaft movement (measured in RPM), force is being applied.
If you can prove otherwise or explain to my why I'm out to lunc here, I'm more than willing to listen!