Hypothetical scenario. I have no real world testing on this.
Let's say Engine A has a typical operating oil temperature of 210-225*F. Let's say this engine has evaporative oil consumption (through the PCV system) at the rate of 1 quart per 5,000 miles.
We add an oil cooler and thermostat that now keeps the typical operating oil temperature at 175-190*F.
Would it be a reasonable assumption to say the evaporative oil consumption (volatility) would decrease with the decrease in oil temperature? If not, why?
Let's say Engine A has a typical operating oil temperature of 210-225*F. Let's say this engine has evaporative oil consumption (through the PCV system) at the rate of 1 quart per 5,000 miles.
We add an oil cooler and thermostat that now keeps the typical operating oil temperature at 175-190*F.
Would it be a reasonable assumption to say the evaporative oil consumption (volatility) would decrease with the decrease in oil temperature? If not, why?