Hey folks...new to the Board, but not entirely new to oil research...read the "Motor Oil 101" posting...very good info...gave me a missing piece to the oil puzzle.
Qusetions: Running 0w/30 M1 in my 2002 5.0 liter/V-8, which has a normal operating temp of 190. When warmed up it runs 40 PSI @ 55mph and 18 PSI @ idle. Based upon that rule-of thumb(10 psi/100 rpm)I am running high on both ends (even with 0/30 synthetic). Even though I don't have a tach, the idle is below 1000 and the over-drive at 55 is below 3000...maybe only 2500.
1) Is that rule-of-thumb true for all water-cooled street vehicles?
2) Is it possible that the engine is getting adequate "flow" even though the oil presures are the same as when I was running 5w/40 syn?
3) When its cold I get the same 60 PSI with the 0w/30 as I did with the 5w/40...what am I missing here?
Would appreciate any technical info to clear up these questions...in fact, if EHaas could weigh-in, that would be great too.
Thanx.
Qusetions: Running 0w/30 M1 in my 2002 5.0 liter/V-8, which has a normal operating temp of 190. When warmed up it runs 40 PSI @ 55mph and 18 PSI @ idle. Based upon that rule-of thumb(10 psi/100 rpm)I am running high on both ends (even with 0/30 synthetic). Even though I don't have a tach, the idle is below 1000 and the over-drive at 55 is below 3000...maybe only 2500.
1) Is that rule-of-thumb true for all water-cooled street vehicles?
2) Is it possible that the engine is getting adequate "flow" even though the oil presures are the same as when I was running 5w/40 syn?
3) When its cold I get the same 60 PSI with the 0w/30 as I did with the 5w/40...what am I missing here?
Would appreciate any technical info to clear up these questions...in fact, if EHaas could weigh-in, that would be great too.
Thanx.