Originally Posted By: aquariuscsm
So an oil with FM's (car oil) has less friction than an oil with no FM's (motorcycle oil)? I've never quite understood FM's and their role in a lubricant. Would that mean that motorcycle oil would cause more wear in a car?
If you look at the stribeck curve
The long sloping are to the right is full fluid film lubrication, where the parts are separated by an "oil wedge"...the low point in the middle is the point of minimum friction, where the parts are just about to touch, then off to the left is the mixed and boundary friction which is characterised by partial contact, and partial fluid film...and high friction (and wear).
Friction modifiers form a soapy sort of layer, often using part of the parent metal itself, which shears off rather than taking chinks off...it lowers the steep parts on the left of the curve, and reduces wear that would otherwise occur.
By nature, they don't eliminate wear, but it's orders of magnitude less than non friction modified oils.
Typically, in passenger vehicles, it's only the thinner grades that use the stuff, 3.5HTHS 30s and upwards use lower amounts, if any.
Here's a paper
http://www.crodalubricants.com/download....9e-0157e039c5a9
Looking at the charts, please note that it's all the left side of the Stribeck curve...they all meet at the low point on the RHS of the Croda charts, as that's the "min friction point", and everything to the right is hydrodynamic, full film, and not where the FMs are active.