Originally Posted By: dnewton3
Originally Posted By: Al
Originally Posted By: BMWTurboDzl
It's a straw man. That's what I'm saying. I think this is better. As you can see aside from suicide the increased risk from having a firearm in the home is minimal.
http://m.aje.oxfordjournals.org/content/160/10/929.full
Ummm..so a risk of homicide of 2.7 times by having a weapon in the home is insignificant?
As I keep asking: Why are "many" gun owners defensive to the point of refusing to acknowledge what is common sense..that the gun in the home is far more likely to kill a friend or family member and will result in 3 times the risk of a homicide (not including home defense).
I can accept these facts and I keep a loaded sigma .380 in my nightstand and a 38 S&W Airweight for the wife when I am not home. I have 2 unloaded shotguns (Model 12/Iver Johnson's) in sight right now. I have no kids in the home.
I do understand what you're saying, AL, but I'll throw this in (not as a taunt but more of a tantilizing counter-offer for provacative thought).
Many of those "in home" deaths by guns are from domestic problems. And if you took away the guns, the homocide likely would still occur, but by other means.
I have a file at work that I keep which gives a "tit for tat" view of homocide. Granted, guns are used quite often. But folks will find a way to murder others, even if a gun is not available, and many times even though one is available. When I return next week, I'll load a quick synopsis for viewing.
My point is that it's wrong to infer that if the gun were not present in the home, that many of those homocides would not take place. More likely, they would simply find other means to manifest the crime. Maybe I took your comment the wrong way, but I found it to imply that having the gun meant an exclusive causation of homocide. I find that dubious; many of those people would have died from another cause.
The only time we can say it's reasonable to exclude guns is when we look at them as an accidental cause rather than homocide; there is no intent to cause accidental death, and therefore the method is mutually exclusive. If my daugher were killed by my Glock by accident, I cannot presume that she would have also been killed by a steak knife .... But with homocide, if the Glock were not present, the knife, a bowling pin, a tire-iron, a coffee mug, etc would all suffice.
See the difference?
What I would agree to with you is a very limited statement such as this:
It is a greater risk in my home to be killed by a gun, simply because I have so many in the home. While VERY remote, the risk is elevated over not having one present. However, that only applies to accidental deaths. Intentional deaths would likely occur regardless of what tool was present, especially in a violent domestic environment.
IMO deaths during domestic disputes are "crimes of passion". A gun is the more convenient and less personal choice of weapon.